Why did Britain appease Hitler in Austria and Czech but not Poland?
Filed Under (History) by admin on 06-01-2008
Tagged Under : Austria, Czech, Czechoslovakia, Hitler, Poland
interestedinhistory asked:
Why did Britain ‘allow’ Hilter to take Austria and Czechoslovakia, but stepped in to help Poland?
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The first areas Hitler took were high in German speaking and German ancestory populations. Poland was an out and out right take over.
Britain didnt have treaty obligations with Austria, appeased the ones with Czechoslovakia, and finally went to war over their obligations with Poland.
Look up ‘appeasement’.
They had realized that their appeasement had gone too far. Hitler kept promising that this was the last thing and he would stop after that, but he never did. Also with Czecholslovakia he was ‘allowed’ to take the sudaten land, which had all the Czech fortifications - after he took the sudaten land he conquered the rest of czecholslavakia which had no fortifications. This was another kind of wake up call for Britain and France.
Trust me, the Czechs never forgave the west for forsaking them….
England tried to destroy Germany in WWI, but failed. Germany had proven itself a more intelligent and resourceful nation England and was rapidly becoming a greater naval power.
Poland was perpetrating atocities upon german people living in the areas given to Poland post WWI. Hitler entered Poland and stopped the atrocities. The drunk, Churchill, was chomping on his cigar, wanting another chance to destroy Germany. Churchill and Roosevelt even joked about patoralizing Germany and sterilizing every German.(The USA was sterilizing certain people at that time. Hitler got his genetics ideas from American universities.) Maybe Churchill had to wait until the jewish press could shape public opinion into support of another war.(I’m guessing on this one. Jews had become very powerful in the press.) WWI was still in people’s memories, and most had little desire to fight another “rich man’s war”.
Churchill did later lament, “I believe that we may have slaughtered the wrong pig.” Odd that the obese Churchill would use the term pig, and exactly what other “pig” was Churchill thinking about, Stalin or the World Congress Of Jews who declare war on Germany in 1934?
I do not believe that Churchil has any “appeasement” in him. I’m thinking that it must have been more a matter of waiting until the propaganda in the jewish press had made the people willing to go to war…..Again!
What would people in the USa andEngland have felt and thought if they had known how many people Stalin had already murdered? 7 million white Christians like themselves, just in the Ukraine, in one winter.
This site is hilarious. People with absolutely no knowledge of history can rate the posts of people with vastly greater knowledge. Given the obvious lack of knowledge of the people responding, I take every negative as an approval. Your pathetic little thumbs cannot make the truth go away.
Ever heard of Munich Agreement in 1938?
Back then Czechoslovakia had magnificent border defense and we did not need foreign help at all. We were ordered to step down and let them take the country. If we wouldn’t have and would be allowed to hold the mountain areas, where are still plenty of bunkers and strongholds what lasted in todays days like a memory of it, they would not be able to get in the country other way but by air and Czechoslovakia would have had very good fighting position.
To take mountain areas was the key it gave them invitation to other parts of the country where Czechoslovakia had no defenses at all.
About Austria I can’t say much. Germans always felt Austria belongs to them back then..
Britain and France, following a plebiscite in the Sudetenland when ethnic Germans voted to become part of a greater Germany, agreed to the annexation of the Sudetenland, for several reasons, the most pressing being that neither were politically inclined to war and, they believed, their military could not compete with that of Germany, it was only after the invasion of the rest of Czechoslovakia that both nations began full mobilisation.
Both France and the Soviet Union had defensive treaties with Czechoslovakia, however Stalin had been left out of the diplomatic process, the upshot was that neither nation was able or inclined to enter another war with Germany.
There is an indication that France and Britain intended, by allowing the Sudetenland and the Polish Corridor to be taken (the latter was eventually taken by the invasion of Poland), that Germany would be brought into conflict with the Soviet Union thereby killing two birds with one stone, the Molotov-Ribbentrop non-aggression pact which led to the invasion of Poland seemed to end that possibility and neither France nor Britain believed that German aggression would stop.
Feuerhund, perhaps you should take the time to read about Chamberlain as well as Churchill instead of indulging your conspiracy theories – but that probably won’t fit into your agenda.